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Suppose Y 1 and Y 2 have joint pdf f(y 1,y 2) = e−y 1, 0 < y 2 ≤ y 1 < ∞ (a) Consider U = Y 1−Y 2Use auxiliary transformation V = Y 1 to get y 1 = v and y 2 = v−u Note u > 0 as y 1 > y 2Furthermore, 0 < y 2 < y 1 inplies 0 < v − u < v or 0 < u < v Jacobian is J = det " dy 1 du dy 1è é 27 ê ë ì í î ï ð ñ ò ó ô õ ö ÷ ø ù ú û ü ý þ ÿ ⊆ ÿ õ⊆ ù ú ý ø ü ö ø ÿ ü ∈ ú ù≠ è õ ∃ þ∈ ÿ þ ø ù ∉ õ ∉ ú ø ù þ è !Homework 2, due Thursday, September 6, 12 Let f X → Y be a mapping of sets We say f is one to one (or injective) if whenever x 1 and x 2 are in X with f(x 1) = f(x 2) then x 1 = x 2
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Nov 09, 15 · The Attempt at a Solution Please explain how to solve I thought that L f meant to calculate the lower bound with respect to f (x) and U f meant to calculate the upper bound with respect to f (x) Therefore, I plugged in 0 for f (0) = 10sin (0) = 0 for the lower bound And π /2 for the upper bound Therefore, f ( π/2) = 10sin (π/2) = 10You need to find inf f(x) for x in those intervals f(x) =0 whenever x is irrational, and there are irrational numbers in there, so the inf has to be $\leq 0$ In this case it is 0, and so L=0See the answer Prove the following 1) f (A u B) = f (A) u f (B) (image of A union B = image of A union image of B) 2)f^1 (A\B) = f^1 (A) \ f^1 (B) (inverse image of A minus B = inverse image of A minus inverse image of B)




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